do you have the right not to be framed for a crime?

Discussion in 'Freedom and Liberty' started by Ivan, Nov 6, 2009.


  1. Ivan

    Ivan Monkey++

    apparently not according the good state of Iowa.


    oh, and surprise surprise, the Obama administration backs them...

    gonna have to find some suitable 3rd party to throw away my vote on in 2012. Im done with Obama and the democrats. "least worst" can only stretch so far.
     
  2. Tango3

    Tango3 Aimless wanderer

    Nothing surprises me lately; Um, isn't it illegal to knowingly make false official statements ?
    reading the article I guess omission is not considered lying anymore
     
  3. Conagher

    Conagher Dark Custom Rider Moderator Emeritus Founding Member

    It is illegal to falsely accuse someone of a crime if they know the person is innocent to begin with. That would be slander and libel.

    Innocent until proven guilty....

    This principal is not in the Constitution, Declaration of Independence, or any other founding document of the United States. It was already an unwritten tenant of English Common Law. The phrase entered US law through a Supreme Court decision which reversed a lower court because the jury had not been instructed "The law presumes that persons charged with crime are innocent until they are proven by competent evidence to be guilty" in 1894. <!-- google_ad_section_end -->
     
  4. Brokor

    Brokor Live Free or Cry Moderator Site Supporter+++ Founding Member

    Maritime jurisdiction = Admiralty = Statutory.

    Black's Law defines "Statutory Jurisdiction" in a circular manner; using the term itself as its definition. Courts will not openly admit that they actually operate under Maritime Law -using 'Statutory' as a blanket term for avoidance...assuming the average American to be ignorant (and rightfully so) of standing law, i.e. Uniform Commercial Code, United States Code, Internal Revenue Code, Federal Reserve Code -are all colorable laws which only have the appearance and functionality of legitimacy, but in reality, just like the private bank's money, it is wholly unconstitutional and devoid of legality, as per American Jurisprudence.

    Simply put: They get away with it all because their operating procedures function outside of the constitution under the Emergency of War Powers, which have been enacted since 1933 by FDR. And for those who wish for the exact cited reference, I point you to Black's Law definition of "The Bank Holiday of March 6, 1933", where it clearly states that the banks operate exclusively by executive privilege also authorized by Congress under USCA Title 12, Section 95(b).

    Even more simply: When you walk into a court room, it is the very same as entering a ship at high seas -you are operating at the sufferance of the "Captain", i.e. the presiding Judge. You can claim your "rights" beforehand under the UCC if you know what you are doing, and you must understand as well that you still require the courts' approval to do so. Additionally, the courts only offer 'lip-service' to the constitution, they 'permit' its applicability only as it pleases, but they do not have to. If you were to utilize UCC 1-207 and UCC 1-103 for instance, you would have to first prove to the court that you explicitly reserved your rights before entering said contract, and that you are fully aware of its ramifications. Example: I write the above cited references on a drivers license under my signature. Because the licensing itself is a contract, an issuance of privilege to drive, you would have to show this original license with the reserved rights (from issuance, not sticky labeled or written in marker) at the time of your hearing for the traffic violation. If the ticketing officer does not appear or if he does and bears witness to this license before a judge; and if you know what to say and how to respond respectfully, you *could* effectively never have to pay a fine again...but remember; you function at the sufferance of the court -nothing is guaranteed.

    Why do my simple responses keep getting more complicated? I apologize.

    Bottom line: You really don't have any "rights" any more -not in a court room. There are tricks, there are secrets, and hidden rules everywhere...and not one of them is a 100% guarantee because the Court rules supreme under Admiralty. Even utilizing a court of record may get you nothing except a very angry judge. The common law does not apply, nothing prior to 1938 as I recall. This is because the Federal Government took over at that time, under the EWP doctrines of colorable law in order to facilitate their colorable monetary system, which had to have its own laws to try its citizenry in court for offenses. When a bust occurs, or when a person is allegedly "framed" -I guarantee you that money has to play a part in the operation. Think long and hard about this.
     
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